Title: PLTW PBS — Principles of Biomedical Technology
Tags: Course::PBS PBS_Unit1 PBS_Unit4 PBS_Unit2 PBS_Unit3 cloze

Front: What does PPE stand for, and give three examples.
Back: Personal Protective Equipment; e.g., safety goggles, gloves, and a lab coat/apron.
Why: HPSD is ~31% of 072110.

Front: What information does a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) provide?
Back: Hazards, safe handling, storage, first aid, spill response, and disposal for a chemical.

Front: Before using a new chemical, what document should you consult first and why?
Back: The SDS, because it lists the hazards and the required handling, PPE, and disposal steps.

Front: How should sharps (needles, blades) be disposed of?
Back: In a labeled, puncture-resistant sharps container, never in regular trash.

Front: How is biohazardous waste handled differently from regular waste?
Back: It is segregated into labeled biohazard containers/bags and decontaminated (e.g., autoclaved) or disposed of by approved protocols.

Front: Why must lab samples and chemicals be properly labeled?
Back: To prevent misuse, cross-contamination, and unsafe storage, and to maintain traceability.

Front: Why are some reagents stored cold or away from light?
Back: To slow degradation/reactions that would change their concentration or activity, keeping results valid.
Why: Storage links to HPSD + data validity.

Front: What is chain of custody?
Back: A documented, unbroken record of who handled evidence, when, and how, preserving its integrity and admissibility.
Why: Core forensic + HPSD handling concept.

Front: Why can a broken chain of custody invalidate evidence?
Back: Gaps allow tampering or contamination, so the evidence can no longer be trusted or used.

Front: Why are control (reference) samples collected at a scene?
Back: To compare against evidence and rule out contamination or background sources.

Front: Why change gloves between handling different evidence items?
Back: To prevent cross-contamination/transfer of material between samples.

Front: Observation vs inference?
Back: An observation is directly sensed/measured; an inference is a conclusion or interpretation drawn from observations.
Why: Foundational scientific-reasoning skill (BRE).

Front: Classify: 'the liquid is red' vs 'the liquid is blood.' Which is observation, which is inference?
Back: 'Red' is an observation; 'blood' is an inference (needs a confirmatory test).

Front: What is trace evidence?
Back: Small physical material transferred during contact (hair, fibers, soil, glass) used to link people, places, and objects.

Front: Name the three basic fingerprint pattern types.
Back: Loops, whorls, and arches.

Front: What are biometrics?
Back: Measurable biological/behavioral traits used to identify individuals (fingerprints, iris, DNA, etc.).

Front: Cause of death vs manner of death?
Back: Cause = the injury/disease that led to death (e.g., blood loss); manner = how it is classified (natural, accident, suicide, homicide, undetermined).

Front: Define rigor mortis, livor mortis, and algor mortis.
Back: Rigor = post-death muscle stiffening; livor = blood pooling/discoloration; algor = body cooling. Together they help estimate time of death.

Front: Why is body temperature (algor mortis) useful for estimating time of death?
Back: A body cools at a roughly predictable rate, so temperature helps back-calculate how long since death (with assumptions/limits).

Front: What is toxicology in a death investigation?
Back: The analysis of body fluids/tissues for drugs, poisons, or other chemicals that may have contributed to death.

Front: What is the dose-response relationship in toxicology?
Back: The principle that a substance's effect depends on the dose: as dose increases, the biological response (and toxicity) generally increases - 'the dose makes the poison.'
Why: Core toxicology concept (BRE data reasoning).

Front: What is the LD50 of a substance?
Back: The dose that is lethal to 50% of a test population; a standard measure used to compare the relative toxicity of substances (lower LD50 = more toxic).

Front: What sample types are commonly analyzed in a forensic toxicology screen?
Back: Blood and urine most often, plus others such as the vitreous humor (eye fluid), liver tissue, hair, and stomach contents, depending on the substance and time frame.

Front: What is the independent variable?
Back: The one factor the experimenter deliberately changes.
Why: BRE is ~69% of the exam.

Front: What is the dependent variable?
Back: The factor that is measured and responds to the independent variable.

Front: Control group vs controlled variables (constants)?
Back: The control group is a comparison/baseline; controlled variables are factors kept the same across groups so they don't confound results.

Front: Positive control vs negative control?
Back: Positive control = expected to give a result, confirming the test works; negative control = expected to give no result, confirming no contamination/background.

Front: What makes a good (testable) hypothesis?
Back: A clear, testable, falsifiable prediction, often if-then, relating the independent and dependent variables.

Front: Qualitative vs quantitative data?
Back: Qualitative = descriptive/categorical (color, texture); quantitative = numerical/measured (mass, time, concentration).

Front: Accuracy vs precision?
Back: Accuracy = closeness to the true value; precision = consistency of repeated measurements.

Front: Reliability vs validity?
Back: Reliability = consistent, repeatable results; validity = the experiment actually measures what it claims to.

Front: Why does increasing sample size strengthen an experiment?
Back: It reduces the effect of random variation/outliers, giving more reliable, generalizable results.

Front: Replication vs repetition?
Back: Replication = independent repeats across separate samples (generalizability); repetition = re-measuring the same sample (measurement reliability).

Front: Why doesn't a correlation between two variables prove causation?
Back: A third variable or coincidence could explain it; causation requires a controlled experiment isolating the variable.

Front: An experiment has no control group. What is the main weakness?
Back: Without a baseline for comparison, you can't attribute any observed change to the independent variable.

Front: How do you calculate the mean?
Back: Sum all values and divide by the number of values.
Why: Descriptive stats are explicit in PBS launch + BRE.

Front: What is the median, and when is it more useful than the mean?
Back: The middle value when data are ordered; more useful than the mean when there are outliers/skew.

Front: What is the mode?
Back: The most frequently occurring value in a data set.

Front: What is the range?
Back: The difference between the maximum and minimum values.

Front: What does the standard deviation describe?
Back: How spread out the data are around the mean; small SD = tightly clustered, large SD = more variable.

Front: Two data sets share the same mean but very different SDs. What does that tell you?
Back: They have the same center but different consistency/spread; the larger-SD set is more variable.

Front: When should you use a bar graph vs a line graph?
Back: Bar graph for comparing categories; line graph for showing a trend over a continuous variable (e.g., time).

Front: What three things must every graph have?
Back: A descriptive title and labeled axes (with units); plus a key/legend if multiple series.

Front: Two means have large overlapping error bars. What does that suggest?
Back: The difference may not be reliable; a statistical test is needed before claiming an effect.

Front: Which variable goes on the x-axis vs the y-axis?
Back: Independent variable on the x-axis; dependent variable on the y-axis.

Front: Name the four classes of biological macromolecules.
Back: Carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids.

Front: Match monomers to macromolecules: carbohydrate, protein, nucleic acid.
Back: Carbohydrate -> monosaccharides; protein -> amino acids; nucleic acid -> nucleotides.

Front: What does Benedict's solution test for, and what is a positive result?
Back: Reducing sugars; positive = color change from blue toward green/yellow/orange/red (with heat).
Why: Indicator tests = BRE technique.

Front: What does iodine (Lugol's) test for, and the positive result?
Back: Starch; positive = color change from amber to blue-black.

Front: What does Biuret reagent test for, and the positive result?
Back: Proteins (peptide bonds); positive = color change from blue to violet/purple.

Front: How can you test for lipids (e.g., Sudan IV or brown-paper test)?
Back: Sudan IV stains lipids red-orange; lipids also leave a translucent grease spot on brown paper.

Front: A sample turns blue-black with iodine but stays blue with Biuret. What is present?
Back: Starch is present (iodine positive); protein is absent (Biuret negative).
Why: Data-interpretation transfer.

Front: Why must an indicator test include a known positive and a known negative control?
Back: To confirm the reagent works (positive) and that a 'no change' truly means absence (negative), making the unknown's result interpretable.

Front: What is an enzyme's general role?
Back: A biological catalyst (usually a protein) that speeds a reaction by lowering activation energy, without being used up.

Front: Name the four primary tissue types.
Back: Epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous tissue.

Front: If the ocular is 10x and the objective is 40x, what is the total magnification?
Back: 400x (10 x 40).

Front: What is the difference between magnification and resolution?
Back: Magnification = how much larger the image appears; resolution = the ability to distinguish two close points as separate.

Front: Why is an autopsy considered a systematic investigation, not a single test?
Back: It synthesizes multiple lines of evidence (external exam, internal exam, histology, toxicology) to support a conclusion.

Front: Why must investigators weigh the reliability and limitations of each evidence source?
Back: Different sources vary in accuracy and bias; a sound conclusion weights stronger evidence and acknowledges uncertainty.

Front: Two pieces of evidence conflict. What is the best next step?
Back: Evaluate the reliability/validity of each, seek additional confirming tests, and avoid forcing a conclusion beyond the evidence.

Front: Why is a single positive test usually not enough to confirm an identity or cause?
Back: Tests can yield false positives; confirmation needs corroborating evidence or a more specific follow-up test.

Front: What are the three parts of a CER response?
Back: Claim, Evidence (specific data), and Reasoning (the science linking evidence to the claim).
Why: Scaffolds the PBS forensic report.

Front: A prompt says 'justify your conclusion from the evidence.' What must you include?
Back: A claim plus the specific evidence and reasoning explaining why the evidence supports it.

Front: How does 'explain' differ from 'identify'?
Back: 'Identify' = name briefly; 'explain' = give the how/why reasoning.

Front: In a lab write-up, what should an 'error analysis' address?
Back: Specific sources of error, their likely effect on the data/direction, and how to reduce them (not just 'human error').

Front: How does the observation-vs-inference skill carry across all biomedical courses?
Back: Every diagnosis and lab result is data (observation); the conclusion is an inference that must be justified by evidence and confirmed.
Why: Bridges PBS to MI/HBS/BI reasoning.

Front: How do indicator (biomolecule) tests connect to the idea of a diagnostic test?
Back: Both detect the presence/absence of a substance via a measurable signal and require controls to interpret, linking PBS to MI's ELISA.

Front: Why is experimental design the backbone skill for the 072110 exam?
Back: Biotechnology Research & Experiments is ~69% of the blueprint, so variables, controls, data, and validity reasoning are tested throughout.
Why: Tells students where to focus.

Front: When should you use a fume hood?
Back: When working with volatile, toxic, or strong-smelling chemicals, to vent harmful vapors away from you.
Why: HPSD handling.

Front: What are the first steps in a chemical spill response?
Back: Alert others, consult the SDS, use proper PPE, contain/clean only if trained and safe, and report it.

Front: When do you use an eyewash station vs a safety shower?
Back: Eyewash for chemical eye contact (flush ~15 min); safety shower for large skin/body exposure.

Front: Why store incompatible chemicals (e.g., acids and bases) separately?
Back: To prevent dangerous reactions (heat, gas, fire) if containers leak or mix.

Front: How is broken glassware disposed of?
Back: In a dedicated rigid 'broken glass' box, never in regular trash or the sharps container.

Front: What does decontamination (e.g., autoclaving) accomplish?
Back: It sterilizes materials/waste by killing microbes with heat/pressure or chemicals before reuse or disposal.

Front: What is a confounding variable?
Back: An uncontrolled variable that changes along with the independent variable, giving an alternative explanation for results.

Front: Placebo vs double-blind?
Back: A placebo is an inert treatment for the control group; double-blind means neither subjects nor researchers know group assignments, reducing bias.

Front: Why standardize procedures across all trials?
Back: So outcome differences come from the independent variable, not from inconsistent methods.

Front: Presumptive vs confirmatory test?
Back: Presumptive narrows possibilities fast (can give false positives); confirmatory specifically identifies the substance (more definitive).
Why: Mirrors sensitivity/specificity logic.

Front: What is Locard's exchange principle?
Back: 'Every contact leaves a trace': objects in contact transfer material both ways, the basis for trace evidence.

Front: What does DNA profiling (STR analysis) compare?
Back: Short tandem repeat regions that vary between people, giving a near-unique genetic profile for matching.

Front: What does ABO blood typing detect?
Back: The A and/or B antigens on red blood cells, plus the RECIPROCAL plasma antibodies (Landsteiner's law: type A has anti-B, type B has anti-A, O has both, AB has neither).

Front: How can a blood spatter pattern help an investigation?
Back: Stain size, shape, and distribution can indicate the direction, force, and position of events.

Front: Hair vs fiber evidence?
Back: Hair is biological (root may carry DNA); fibers are textile threads, natural (cotton/wool) or synthetic (polyester), compared by type/color.

Front: How does forensic entomology help estimate time of death?
Back: Insect colonization follows a predictable succession; the species and life stages present indicate elapsed time since death.

Front: What is the main function of carbohydrates?
Back: Short-term energy (e.g., glucose) and some structural roles (e.g., cellulose).

Front: What are the main functions of lipids?
Back: Long-term energy storage, cell membrane structure (phospholipids), and some signaling (certain hormones).

Front: What are major functions of proteins?
Back: Enzymes, structure, transport, signaling, and defense (antibodies); shape determines function.

Front: What is the function of nucleic acids?
Back: Store and transmit genetic information (DNA) and help express it (RNA).

Front: Why is an enzyme specific to its substrate?
Back: Its active site has a complementary shape/chemistry, so only the matching substrate binds (lock-and-key / induced fit).

Front: What happens to an enzyme at high temperature or extreme pH?
Back: It denatures: its shape and active site change, so it loses function.

Front: Dehydration synthesis vs hydrolysis?
Back: Dehydration synthesis joins monomers and removes water; hydrolysis breaks polymers by adding water.

Front: How do you calculate percent error?
Back: |experimental - accepted| / accepted x 100%.

Front: What should you do with a suspected outlier?
Back: Investigate whether it's a real value or an error, report it, and justify any decision rather than deleting it silently.

Front: Interpolation vs extrapolation?
Back: Interpolation estimates within the measured range (more reliable); extrapolation predicts beyond it (less reliable).

Front: Why are tissue samples stained for histology?
Back: Stains add contrast so different structures and cell types become visible under the microscope.

Front: What happens to the field of view as magnification increases?
Back: The field of view gets smaller: you see less area but in greater detail.

Q: The [...] variable is what you change; the [...] variable is what you measure; [...] variables are kept constant.
A: independent; dependent; controlled

Q: An [...] is directly sensed or measured, while an [...] is a conclusion drawn from observations.
A: observation; inference

Benedict's solution tests for reducing sugars, iodine tests for starch, and Biuret reagent tests for protein.

Q: [...] is the documented record of who handled evidence and when, preserving its [...] and admissibility.
A: Chain of custody; integrity

Q: The [...] is the average, the [...] is the middle value, and the [...] describes the spread around the mean.
A: mean; median; standard deviation

Q: Time of death can be estimated from [...] (stiffening), [...] (pooling), and [...] (cooling).
A: rigor mortis; livor mortis; algor mortis

Q: A [...] control confirms the test can work; a [...] control confirms there is no contamination or background signal.
A: positive; negative

Front: What are the four classic vital signs?
Back: Body temperature, pulse (heart rate), respiratory rate, and blood pressure.
Why: Vitals are the baseline clinical data students chart in 2.1.

Front: What is a typical resting adult heart rate range?
Back: About 60-100 beats per minute.

Front: What two numbers make up a blood pressure reading, and what do they mean?
Back: Systolic over diastolic: systolic = pressure during heart contraction, diastolic = pressure during relaxation (e.g., 120/80 mmHg).

Front: A patient's blood pressure reads 150/95 mmHg. Is this normal, and what is it classified as?
Back: It is elevated; ~150/95 is in the hypertension range (normal is about 120/80).
Why: Data-against-reference-range skill (BRE).

Front: Why does pulse oximetry (SpO2) measure oxygen saturation, and what is a normal value?
Back: It estimates the % of hemoglobin carrying oxygen via light absorption; normal is ~95-100%.

Front: What is homeostasis?
Back: The maintenance of a stable internal environment (e.g., temperature, pH, glucose) within a narrow range despite external change.
Why: Vital signs are read AS homeostatic set points.

Front: What are the parts of a negative feedback loop?
Back: A stimulus changes a variable; a sensor detects it; a control center compares to a set point; an effector responds to reverse the change back toward normal.

Front: Negative vs positive feedback?
Back: Negative feedback reverses a change to restore the set point (most homeostasis); positive feedback amplifies a change toward a result (e.g., blood clotting, labor).

Front: Why do abnormal vital signs suggest a homeostatic imbalance?
Back: Vital signs are regulated variables; values outside the normal range signal that a feedback system is failing to maintain the set point.

Front: What is a patient history (medical history)?
Back: A structured record of a patient's symptoms, past illnesses, medications, family history, and lifestyle, collected to inform diagnosis.

Front: Subjective vs objective data in a patient encounter?
Back: Subjective = what the patient reports (symptoms, e.g., 'I feel dizzy'); objective = measured/observed signs (e.g., BP 150/95).
Why: Mirrors observation-vs-inference from Unit 1.

Front: Sign vs symptom?
Back: A sign is objective and observable/measurable by others (e.g., fever); a symptom is subjective and reported by the patient (e.g., nausea).

Front: Why is a thorough patient history considered evidence for a diagnosis?
Back: It supplies the context and risk factors that, combined with exam and lab data, support or rule out possible causes.

Front: What does HIPAA protect?
Back: The privacy and security of individually identifiable health information (Protected Health Information, PHI).
Why: Privacy is an explicit 2.1 skill.

Front: What is PHI (Protected Health Information)?
Back: Any health information that can identify an individual (name, diagnosis, dates, record numbers) and is created or held by a covered entity.

Front: A student aide wants to discuss a patient's results in a hallway. Why is this a HIPAA problem?
Back: It risks disclosing PHI to people without a need to know, violating patient privacy.

Front: Confidentiality vs informed consent?
Back: Confidentiality = keeping a patient's information private; informed consent = the patient agreeing to a procedure after understanding risks/benefits.

Front: Is it a HIPAA violation to share de-identified data for a class project?
Back: No—if all identifiers are removed so no individual can be recognized, the data is no longer PHI.

Front: What is a reference (normal) range on a lab report?
Back: The interval of values expected in healthy individuals, used to flag a result as low, normal, or high.
Why: Reading data against a reference range is the core BRE skill here.

Front: What is a normal fasting blood glucose range, and what level indicates diabetes?
Back: Normal fasting glucose is ~70-99 mg/dL; fasting >=126 mg/dL on repeat testing indicates diabetes.

Front: What range is considered prediabetes for fasting glucose?
Back: About 100-125 mg/dL fasting.

Front: HDL vs LDL cholesterol?
Back: HDL is 'good' cholesterol that carries cholesterol to the liver; LDL is 'bad' cholesterol that can deposit in artery walls.

Front: A patient has LDL 180 mg/dL and HDL 35 mg/dL. Why is this an unfavorable lipid panel?
Back: LDL is high (raising plaque risk) and HDL is low (less protective transport), increasing cardiovascular risk.
Why: Interpret multi-value data set (BRE).

Front: What does HbA1c measure?
Back: Average blood glucose over the past ~2-3 months by measuring glycated hemoglobin.

Front: Modifiable vs non-modifiable risk factors?
Back: Modifiable can be changed (diet, smoking, activity); non-modifiable cannot (age, sex, family history/genetics).
Why: Risk-factor identification is a 2.1 skill.

Front: What is a chronic disease?
Back: A long-lasting condition (typically >1 year) that often requires ongoing management (e.g., type 2 diabetes, hypertension, heart disease).

Front: Name two modifiable risk factors a clinician could target to lower type 2 diabetes risk.
Back: Diet/weight and physical activity (also tobacco use), because they affect insulin sensitivity and glucose control.

Front: If a patient has a family history of a disease, are they certain to get it?
Back: No—genetics raises risk (a non-modifiable factor), but environment and modifiable factors strongly influence whether disease develops.

Front: What is telehealth?
Back: The delivery of health care, monitoring, or consultation remotely using telecommunications technology.
Why: Telehealth/wearables are explicit 2.1 content.

Front: How can a wearable that logs continuous heart rate improve a diagnosis?
Back: It provides longitudinal, real-world data (trends, rare events) beyond a single in-office reading, improving the evidence base.

Front: What is one data-quality limitation of consumer wearable health data?
Back: Sensors can be less accurate than clinical devices and prone to motion/fit artifacts, so readings need validation before clinical use.
Why: Reliability/validity reasoning (BRE).

Front: A glucose log trends from 95 to 140 mg/dL over three months. What should a clinician conclude?
Back: The upward trend is the concern; confirm with HbA1c / repeat testing. (Thresholds: fasting >=126 = diabetes, 100-125 = prediabetes; a single 140 is not by itself diagnostic.)
Why: Trend interpretation (BRE).

Front: State the central dogma of molecular biology.
Back: DNA is transcribed to RNA, which is translated to protein (DNA -> RNA -> protein).
Why: Core 2.2 content.

Front: What happens during transcription?
Back: RNA polymerase copies a DNA gene into a complementary messenger RNA (mRNA) strand.

Front: What happens during translation?
Back: Ribosomes read mRNA codons and assemble the corresponding amino acids (delivered by tRNA) into a protein.

Front: What is a codon?
Back: A sequence of three mRNA bases that specifies one amino acid (or a stop signal).

Front: Using a codon chart, what amino acid does the mRNA codon AUG specify, and what else does it signal?
Back: Methionine; AUG is also the start codon for translation.
Why: Reading a codon chart is an explicit 2.2 skill.

Front: If a DNA template strand reads TAC, what is the mRNA codon, and what does it code for?
Back: mRNA = AUG, which codes for methionine (start).

Front: Gene vs allele?
Back: A gene is a DNA sequence coding for a product; an allele is one of the alternative versions of that gene.

Front: Genotype vs phenotype?
Back: Genotype = the genetic makeup (alleles present); phenotype = the observable trait that results.

Front: What is a mutation?
Back: A change in the DNA sequence that may alter the resulting RNA or protein.

Front: Point mutation: silent vs missense vs nonsense?
Back: Silent = codon still codes the same amino acid; missense = codes a different amino acid; nonsense = creates a premature stop codon.

Front: Substitution vs frameshift (insertion/deletion) mutation?
Back: Substitution swaps one base (affects one codon); insertion/deletion of bases (not in multiples of 3) shifts the reading frame, changing every downstream codon.

Front: Trace how a single DNA base change can cause a disease phenotype (e.g., sickle cell).
Back: A base substitution changes a codon, altering one amino acid in the protein, which changes the protein's shape/function, producing the disease trait.
Why: Mutation-to-phenotype is the marquee 2.2 skill.

Front: Are all mutations harmful?
Back: No—mutations can be silent, harmful, or beneficial; effect depends on whether and how the protein's function changes.

Front: Why does a frameshift mutation usually have a larger effect than a single substitution?
Back: It shifts the reading frame, so all downstream codons (and the whole protein sequence after the site) are changed.

Front: What is a karyotype?
Back: An organized display of an individual's chromosomes arranged by size and shape, used to detect chromosomal abnormalities.
Why: Karyotype interpretation is a 2.2-2.3 skill.

Front: How many chromosomes are in a typical human somatic cell, and how are they arranged?
Back: 46 chromosomes in 23 pairs (22 autosome pairs + 1 sex-chromosome pair).

Front: A karyotype shows three copies of chromosome 21. What does this indicate?
Back: Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)—an extra chromosome 21.
Why: Reading a karyotype (BRE).

Front: How do you distinguish a male vs female karyotype?
Back: Female typically has two X chromosomes (XX); male typically has one X and one Y (XY).

Front: What is a pedigree?
Back: A diagram of family relationships across generations used to track the inheritance of a trait.
Why: Reading a pedigree is an explicit skill here.

Front: In a standard pedigree, what do squares, circles, and filled symbols mean?
Back: Squares = males, circles = females; filled/shaded symbols = individuals expressing the trait.

Front: A trait skips generations and affected individuals have unaffected parents. What inheritance pattern is suggested?
Back: Autosomal recessive (both parents are carriers).
Why: Pattern recognition from data (BRE).

Front: What is a carrier?
Back: An individual who is heterozygous for a recessive allele—they carry it without showing the trait but can pass it on.

Front: Two carriers of an autosomal recessive disease have a child. What is the probability the child is affected?
Back: 25% (1 in 4), from a heterozygous x heterozygous Punnett cross.
Why: Estimating genetic risk is a 2.2-2.3 skill.

Front: Dominant vs recessive allele?
Back: A dominant allele's trait shows with one copy; a recessive trait shows only with two copies (homozygous recessive).

Front: Does carrying one recessive disease allele mean a person will get the disease?
Back: No—a carrier (heterozygote) does not express a recessive disease but can transmit the allele.

Front: Why is genetic risk usually expressed as a probability rather than a certainty?
Back: Inheritance is governed by chance allele combinations, so outcomes are probabilistic across offspring.

Front: What is a differential diagnosis?
Back: A ranked list of possible conditions that could explain a patient's findings, to be narrowed by further evidence.
Why: Marquee 2.3 skill.

Front: How does a clinician narrow a differential diagnosis?
Back: By gathering additional evidence (targeted tests, history, exam) that rules conditions in or out until the best-supported diagnosis remains.

Front: What does it mean to 'rule in' vs 'rule out' a condition on a differential?
Back: Rule in = evidence (often a specific, high-specificity test result) supports the condition as a likely cause; rule out = evidence (often a sensitive negative test) makes it unlikely, so it is removed from the list.
Why: Third differential-diagnosis card: the in/out reasoning that drives the workup.

Front: Sensitivity vs specificity of a diagnostic test?
Back: Sensitivity = ability to correctly identify those WITH the disease (few false negatives); specificity = ability to correctly identify those WITHOUT it (few false positives).
Why: Test-quality reasoning is BRE-central.

Front: False positive vs false negative?
Back: False positive = test says disease present when it is not; false negative = test says absent when it is present.

Front: Screening test vs diagnostic (confirmatory) test?
Back: A screening test is broad and sensitive to flag possible cases; a confirmatory test is more specific to verify the diagnosis.
Why: Echoes presumptive-vs-confirmatory from Unit 1.

Front: Why shouldn't a single positive screening result be treated as a final diagnosis?
Back: Screening tests yield false positives; a confirmatory test or corroborating evidence is needed before diagnosing.

Front: How does a clinician synthesize a diagnostic workup?
Back: By integrating history, physical exam, vital signs, and lab/imaging results, weighting each by reliability, into a justified conclusion.
Why: Evidence synthesis is the 2.3 capstone skill.

Front: Two test results conflict in a workup. What is the best next step?
Back: Evaluate each test's reliability/validity, order a more specific confirmatory test, and avoid concluding beyond the evidence.

Front: A prompt says 'justify your recommended diagnosis from the evidence.' What must your answer include?
Back: A claim (the diagnosis) plus the specific patient evidence and the reasoning linking that evidence to the diagnosis.
Why: Justifying a recommendation is an explicit 2.3 skill.

Front: Why must blood and body-fluid specimens be treated as biohazards?
Back: They may contain bloodborne pathogens, so they require Standard Precautions, PPE, and biohazard disposal.
Why: HPSD is ~31% of 072110.

Front: What are Standard (Universal) Precautions?
Back: Treating all blood and body fluids as if infectious—using PPE, hand hygiene, and safe sharps handling regardless of known status.

Front: What PPE is appropriate when drawing or handling a blood sample?
Back: Gloves at minimum, plus eye/face protection and a lab coat/gown if splash is possible.

Front: What must a specimen label include before it leaves the patient?
Back: Patient identifiers, date/time of collection, and the collector—labeled at the bedside to prevent mix-ups.

Front: Why can a mislabeled specimen invalidate a diagnostic result?
Back: The result can be attributed to the wrong patient, leading to misdiagnosis; integrity and traceability are lost.
Why: Sample integrity links handling to data validity.

Front: What is chain of custody for a clinical or forensic specimen?
Back: A documented, unbroken record of everyone who handled the specimen, when, and how, preserving its integrity and admissibility.
Why: Carries forward from Unit 1; HPSD handling.

Front: Why are many blood specimens refrigerated or frozen before analysis?
Back: Cold slows degradation and microbial growth, preserving analyte concentrations so results stay valid.
Why: Storage protects data validity (BRE link).

Front: Why do some blood tubes contain an anticoagulant additive, and why does tube order matter?
Back: The additive prevents clotting (or preserves the analyte); drawing tubes in the correct order prevents additive carryover that would skew results.

Front: How are used needles and lancets disposed of?
Back: In a labeled, puncture-resistant sharps container—never in regular trash.

Front: How is biohazardous (regulated medical) waste disposed of?
Back: Segregated into labeled biohazard bags/containers and decontaminated (e.g., autoclaved) or incinerated per protocol.

Front: What does autoclaving accomplish?
Back: It sterilizes materials with pressurized steam (typically 121 C), killing microbes before reuse or disposal.

Front: What information does a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) provide for a lab reagent?
Back: Hazards, safe handling, storage, PPE, first aid, spill response, and disposal for that chemical.

Front: Before using a fixative like formalin, what should you consult and why?
Back: The SDS, because formalin is toxic/irritating and requires specific ventilation, PPE, and disposal steps.

Front: Why is aseptic (clean) technique important when handling clinical specimens?
Back: It prevents contamination of the sample (and the handler), keeping results valid and reducing infection risk.

Front: How do you convert a fraction of patients (e.g., 3 of 25) into a percentage?
Back: Divide and multiply by 100: 3/25 = 0.12 = 12%.
Why: Percent/rate math recurs in clinical data.

Front: What does a normal (reference) range represent statistically?
Back: The interval (often the central ~95%) of values found in a healthy population, so values outside it are statistically unusual.

Front: Which graph type best shows a patient's glucose over six months?
Back: A line graph, because time is continuous and you want to show a trend.

Front: A bar graph compares mean cholesterol in two diet groups with large overlapping error bars. What can you conclude?
Back: The difference may not be reliable; a statistical test is needed before claiming an effect of diet.

Front: In a clinical study, what are the treatment group and control group?
Back: The treatment group receives the intervention; the control group receives a placebo or standard care for comparison/baseline.
Why: Experimental-design reasoning is ~69% of the exam.

Front: Why does a larger patient sample strengthen a clinical conclusion?
Back: It reduces the influence of random variation and outliers, giving more reliable, generalizable results.

Front: A study finds patients who drink coffee have lower disease rates. Does coffee prevent the disease?
Back: Not necessarily—this is a correlation; confounding variables could explain it, so causation requires a controlled trial.

Front: How does 'analyze the data' differ from 'describe the data' on a prompt?
Back: 'Describe' states what the data show; 'analyze' explains patterns, relationships, and what they mean for the conclusion.

Front: A prompt asks you to identify a limitation of a wearable-data study. What makes a strong answer?
Back: A specific source of error (e.g., sensor inaccuracy) plus its likely effect on the conclusion and how to reduce it.

Front: How does reading a lab value against a reference range connect to Unit 1's observation-vs-inference skill?
Back: The measured value is the observation; calling it 'abnormal' or naming a diagnosis is an inference that must be justified by evidence.
Why: Bridges Unit 1 forensic reasoning to clinical diagnosis.

Front: Why is specimen handling (HPSD) inseparable from valid diagnostic data (BRE)?
Back: Mishandled or mislabeled specimens produce invalid results, so safe handling/storage directly protects data validity—linking the two exam domains.
Why: Connects the two 072110 domains.

Front: How does the mutation-to-phenotype chain in 2.2 set up genetic disease diagnosis?
Back: Understanding DNA->protein->trait lets a clinician connect a genetic test result to a phenotype and justify a diagnosis or risk estimate.

Q: The central dogma is [...] -> [...] -> [...]: DNA is transcribed to RNA, which is translated to protein.
A: DNA; RNA; protein

Q: A [...] mutation changes one amino acid, a [...] mutation creates a premature stop codon, and a [...] mutation leaves the amino acid unchanged.
A: missense; nonsense; silent

Q: [...] is a test's ability to correctly identify those WITH a disease, while [...] is its ability to correctly identify those WITHOUT it.
A: Sensitivity; specificity

Q: A [...] is heterozygous for a recessive allele; two carriers have a [...]% chance of an affected child.
A: carrier; 25

The four classic vital signs are temperature, pulse, respiratory rate, and blood pressure.

Q: [...] protects [...] (Protected Health Information), which is any health data that can identify an individual.
A: HIPAA; PHI

Q: Used needles go in a [...] container, biohazard waste is [...] or incinerated, and a [...] lists handling and disposal for each reagent.
A: sharps; autoclaved; Safety Data Sheet

Front: What is a nosocomial (healthcare-associated) infection?
Back: An infection a patient acquires while receiving care in a healthcare setting, not present on admission.
Why: Anchors the 3.1 case.

Front: List the six links in the chain of infection.
Back: Infectious agent, reservoir, portal of exit, mode of transmission, portal of entry, and susceptible host.
Why: Diagramming the chain is the marquee 3.1 skill.

Front: Which chain-of-infection link does hand hygiene most directly break?
Back: Mode of transmission (it interrupts spread from one host/surface to another).

Front: Which link does vaccination most directly target?
Back: The susceptible host—it makes the host immune/less susceptible.

Front: Compare bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites as pathogens.
Back: Bacteria = living single cells (many treatable with antibiotics); viruses = non-cellular, need a host cell to replicate; fungi = eukaryotic (yeasts/molds); parasites = organisms living on/in a host.

Front: Why won't antibiotics treat a viral infection?
Back: Antibiotics target bacterial structures/processes that viruses lack, so they have no effect on viruses.

Front: Direct vs indirect transmission?
Back: Direct = pathogen passes by direct contact/droplets between hosts; indirect = via a contaminated object (fomite), vector, or airborne particles.

Front: What is a fomite?
Back: An inanimate object or surface that can carry and transfer infectious agents (e.g., doorknob, stethoscope).

Front: What is aseptic technique?
Back: A set of practices that prevent contamination by microorganisms (hand hygiene, sterile fields, sterilized instruments).
Why: Aseptic technique is an explicit 3.1 skill; HPSD-central.

Front: Clean (medical asepsis) vs sterile (surgical asepsis) technique?
Back: Clean technique reduces the number of microbes; sterile technique eliminates all microbes for invasive procedures.

Front: Sanitization vs disinfection vs sterilization?
Back: Sanitization lowers microbe counts to safe levels; disinfection kills most pathogens on surfaces; sterilization destroys all microbes including spores.

Front: Innate vs adaptive immunity?
Back: Innate = fast, nonspecific first-line defense (skin, inflammation, phagocytes); adaptive = slower, specific response with antibodies and memory.
Why: Immune response is explicit 3.1 content.

Front: What is an antibody?
Back: A protein made by the immune system that specifically binds an antigen to neutralize or tag a pathogen.

Front: How does immunological memory make a second exposure milder?
Back: Memory cells from the first exposure mount a faster, stronger antibody response, often clearing the pathogen before illness develops.

Front: Antigen vs antibody?
Back: An antigen is a molecule (often on a pathogen) that triggers an immune response; an antibody is the protein produced to bind that antigen.

Front: What is inflammation, and what are its classic signs?
Back: A nonspecific innate response to injury/infection; signs are redness, heat, swelling, and pain.

Front: What is the role of a phagocyte (e.g., macrophage) in innate immunity?
Back: It engulfs and digests pathogens and debris, and can present antigens to activate adaptive immunity.

Front: How does a vaccine produce immunity without causing the disease?
Back: It exposes the immune system to a harmless form of an antigen, triggering antibody production and memory cells for future protection.

Front: What is virulence?
Back: The degree of harm (severity of disease) a pathogen can cause in a host.

Front: Reservoir vs portal of exit?
Back: A reservoir is where a pathogen normally lives/multiplies (human, animal, environment); a portal of exit is how it leaves the reservoir (e.g., coughing, blood).

Front: Why is a sterile field considered contaminated if an item is below waist level or out of sight?
Back: Microbes can be introduced unseen; aseptic rules treat unmonitored areas as non-sterile to protect the patient.
Why: Aseptic technique (HPSD).

Front: What is epidemiology?
Back: The study of how diseases are distributed in populations and the factors that influence that distribution.
Why: Anchors the outbreak investigation.

Front: Incidence vs prevalence?
Back: Incidence = NEW cases over a time period; prevalence = ALL existing cases at a point in time.

Front: Outbreak vs epidemic vs pandemic?
Back: Outbreak = more cases than expected in an area; epidemic = a larger, spreading outbreak; pandemic = an epidemic across multiple countries/continents.

Front: What is the mode of transmission for a 'point-source' outbreak?
Back: Exposure to a single common source over a short period (e.g., one contaminated meal).

Front: What is a line list in an outbreak investigation?
Back: A table where each row is a case and columns record key variables (onset date, symptoms, exposures, demographics).
Why: Building a line list is a marquee 3.1 outbreak skill.

Front: Why is a line list essential before drawing conclusions in an outbreak?
Back: It organizes case data so patterns (common exposures, timing) can be analyzed systematically rather than anecdotally.

Front: What is an epidemic curve (epi curve)?
Back: A histogram of case counts by date of symptom onset, used to show an outbreak's magnitude and pattern over time.
Why: Constructing an epi curve is an explicit skill.

Front: An epi curve shows a sharp single peak that rises and falls quickly. What does this pattern suggest?
Back: A point-source outbreak (everyone exposed to one common source at about the same time).
Why: Reading the curve shape = BRE data skill.

Front: An epi curve shows successive, progressively larger waves. What does this suggest?
Back: Person-to-person (propagated) transmission spreading through the population.

Front: How do investigators identify the causative agent of an outbreak?
Back: By combining the line list/epi curve pattern with lab testing of specimens and statistical links between exposure and illness.
Why: Identifying the agent is a 3.1 skill.

Front: What is an index case (patient zero)?
Back: The first identified case in an outbreak investigation.

Front: If two exposures are both common among cases, does that prove one caused the illness?
Back: No—association is not causation; investigators must rule out confounders and confirm a plausible, statistically supported link.
Why: Mirrors correlation/causation (BRE).

Front: What is triage?
Back: The process of sorting and prioritizing patients for treatment based on the severity and urgency of their conditions.
Why: Marquee 3.2 skill.

Front: In a mass-casualty triage, why is a patient with a survivable but time-critical injury prioritized over one with minor cuts?
Back: Triage allocates limited resources to do the most good; the time-critical patient benefits most from immediate care.

Front: What does it mean to stabilize a patient?
Back: To restore and maintain vital functions (airway, breathing, circulation) enough to prevent deterioration before definitive care.

Front: What does pharmacokinetics describe?
Back: What the body does to a drug—its absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion (ADME).
Why: Pharmacokinetics is explicit 3.2 content.

Front: List the four ADME phases of pharmacokinetics.
Back: Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, and Excretion.

Front: Which organ is primarily responsible for drug metabolism, and why does it matter?
Back: The liver; impaired liver function can slow metabolism, raising drug levels and the risk of toxicity.
Why: Explaining drug metabolism is a 3.2 skill.

Front: Which organ primarily excretes many drugs, and what is the dosing implication?
Back: The kidneys; reduced kidney function can cause drugs to accumulate, so doses may need to be lowered.

Front: What is a weight-based dose?
Back: A dose calculated per unit of body weight (e.g., mg/kg), so larger patients receive proportionally more drug.
Why: Dose calculation is an explicit 3.2 skill; dose HANDLING (HPSD).

Front: A drug is dosed at 5 mg/kg for a 20 kg child. What is the dose?
Back: 100 mg (5 mg/kg x 20 kg).

Front: A 60 kg patient needs 2 mg/kg. How many mg, and if the stock is 40 mg/mL, what volume?
Back: 120 mg total; 120 mg / 40 mg/mL = 3 mL.
Why: Two-step dose math (BRE).

Front: Why is a 10-fold dosing error especially dangerous, and how is it prevented?
Back: It can cause overdose or under-treatment; prevention includes double-checking units, decimal points, and independent verification.
Why: Dose handling safety (HPSD link).

Front: Therapeutic dose vs toxic dose (therapeutic index)?
Back: Therapeutic dose produces the desired effect; toxic dose causes harm. A narrow therapeutic index means the safe and toxic doses are close, requiring careful handling.

Front: Why is triage re-assessed repeatedly during an emergency, not done once?
Back: Patient conditions change; reassessment ensures priorities and resources match current severity.

Front: What does the 'ABC' priority in emergency care stand for?
Back: Airway, Breathing, Circulation—the order of life-threats to address first.

Front: Pharmacokinetics vs pharmacodynamics?
Back: Pharmacokinetics = what the body does to the drug (ADME); pharmacodynamics = what the drug does to the body (its effects/mechanism).

Front: Why does an IV drug act faster than an oral drug?
Back: IV delivers the drug directly into the bloodstream, skipping absorption; oral drugs must be absorbed through the GI tract first.

Front: A medication order is 250 mg but tablets are 125 mg each. How many tablets?
Back: 2 tablets (250 / 125).

Front: Convert 0.5 g of a drug to milligrams for a dose calculation.
Back: 500 mg (0.5 g x 1000 mg/g).
Why: Unit-conversion errors cause dosing mistakes.

Front: What is surge capacity?
Back: A health system's ability to rapidly expand staff, space, and supplies to meet a sudden increase in patient demand.
Why: Marquee 3.2-3.3 skill.

Front: Name the 'three S's' a surge plan must expand.
Back: Staff, space (beds/facilities), and supplies (equipment/medications).

Front: What is public-health surveillance?
Back: Ongoing, systematic collection and analysis of health data to detect and respond to disease trends and outbreaks.
Why: Surveillance is explicit 3.3 content.

Front: How does surveillance data trigger a public-health response?
Back: A rise above expected baseline signals a possible outbreak, prompting investigation and intervention.

Front: What makes public-health communication effective during an emergency?
Back: Clear, accurate, timely, and audience-appropriate messaging that tells people what to do and why.
Why: Planning public-health comms is a 3.3 skill.

Front: What is usability in the context of a health tool or message?
Back: How easily and effectively the intended users can understand and use it to accomplish their goal.
Why: Usability is explicit 3.3 content.

Front: Why test a public-health app or flyer with real users before release?
Back: To find confusing or error-prone elements so the design can be revised based on evidence, improving uptake.
Why: Iteration-from-data (BRE).

Front: Quarantine vs isolation?
Back: Isolation separates people who ARE sick; quarantine separates and restricts people who were EXPOSED but not yet known to be sick.

Front: What is herd (community) immunity?
Back: When a high enough proportion of a population is immune that spread is slowed, indirectly protecting the non-immune.

Front: What is the recommended order for DONNING PPE (putting on)?
Back: Gown, mask/respirator, goggles/face shield, then gloves.
Why: HPSD is ~31% of 072110; this unit is handling-rich.

Front: What is the recommended order for DOFFING PPE (taking off)?
Back: Gloves, goggles/face shield, gown, then mask/respirator—removing the most contaminated items first.

Front: Why is hand hygiene performed after removing gloves?
Back: Gloves can have micro-tears or hands can be contaminated during removal, so hand hygiene is still required.

Front: When is soap-and-water required instead of alcohol-based hand rub?
Back: When hands are visibly soiled or after exposure to certain spore-forming pathogens (e.g., C. difficile), where alcohol is less effective.

Front: Contact, droplet, and airborne precautions—what do they add beyond Standard Precautions?
Back: Contact = gown+gloves for spread by touch; droplet = mask for large respiratory droplets; airborne = N95 respirator + negative-pressure room for tiny airborne particles.
Why: Transmission-based precautions (HPSD).

Front: Why must contact time (dwell time) be observed when disinfecting a surface?
Back: The disinfectant must stay wet on the surface long enough to kill the target microbes; wiping too soon leaves it ineffective.

Front: How are used needles and lancets handled and disposed of?
Back: Never recapped by hand; dropped point-first into a labeled, puncture-resistant sharps container at the point of use.

Front: Why is a needlestick injury a serious handling hazard?
Back: It can transmit bloodborne pathogens (e.g., HIV, hepatitis B/C) directly into the handler.

Front: What are the 'five rights' of medication administration?
Back: Right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, and right time.
Why: Dose/medication handling (HPSD).

Front: How are expired or unused controlled medications disposed of?
Back: Per facility/DEA protocol—documented and destroyed by approved methods, never poured down a drain or thrown in regular trash.

Front: Why must some medications and vaccines be stored within a specific temperature range (cold chain)?
Back: Temperature excursions degrade the drug/vaccine, reducing potency or safety, so the cold chain preserves efficacy.
Why: Storage protects efficacy/data (BRE link).

Front: How should a leaking specimen container be handled?
Back: Contain it using PPE per protocol, decontaminate the area, and re-bag/relabel; treat spilled contents as biohazardous.

Front: What does the biohazard symbol indicate, and how is such waste handled?
Back: It marks infectious/biohazardous material, which must be segregated into labeled containers and decontaminated (e.g., autoclaved) or incinerated.

Front: What are the first steps in a biological spill response?
Back: Alert others and don PPE, contain the spill, disinfect with the appropriate agent and dwell time, then dispose of materials as biohazard waste.

Front: Why consult the SDS before using a concentrated disinfectant like bleach?
Back: It lists the hazards, required PPE/ventilation, correct dilution, and disposal, preventing chemical injury and ineffective use.

Front: Why does an outbreak specimen need documented chain of custody and handling?
Back: To prove the result belongs to the right case and was not contaminated, preserving the integrity of the investigation's evidence.
Why: Links handling to data validity.

Front: Why are some specimens transported on ice or in a specific medium?
Back: To preserve the analyte or keep an organism viable so the lab result is valid; the wrong conditions degrade the sample.
Why: Storage/transport (HPSD).

Front: Antiseptic vs disinfectant?
Back: An antiseptic is applied to living tissue (skin); a disinfectant is applied to surfaces/objects.

Front: Why must regular trash, sharps, and biohazard waste be separated at the point of use?
Back: Each stream has a different disposal route; mixing creates injury and contamination hazards and violates protocol.

Front: What happens to a vaccine if the cold chain is broken?
Back: It can lose potency, so it may fail to protect and must be discarded per protocol.

Front: When should an N95 respirator be used instead of a surgical mask?
Back: For airborne precautions, because an N95 filters small airborne particles that a loose surgical mask does not.

Front: Why is hand hygiene called the single most important measure to prevent healthcare-associated infection?
Back: Hands are the most common vehicle for transmitting pathogens between patients and surfaces; cleaning them breaks that route.

Front: How do you calculate an attack rate in an outbreak?
Back: Number of cases divided by the number of people at risk, often expressed as a percentage.
Why: Rate math is BRE-central.

Front: 20 of 50 people who ate the salad got sick; 2 of 50 who didn't got sick. What does comparing these attack rates suggest?
Back: The salad is strongly associated with illness (40% vs 4%), implicating it as a likely source.
Why: Comparing exposed vs unexposed (BRE).

Front: In an epidemiological study, what is a control (comparison) group?
Back: People without the exposure or disease, used as a baseline to judge whether an exposure is linked to illness.
Why: Experimental design ~69% of exam.

Front: Why does a larger number of cases in a line list make conclusions more reliable?
Back: More cases reduce the chance that an observed exposure pattern is due to random variation.

Front: Why is a histogram (not a scatter plot) the right format for an epi curve?
Back: Cases are counted within time intervals (onset dates), which a histogram displays; a scatter plot is for paired continuous variables.

Front: Name one limitation of relying only on reported cases for surveillance.
Back: Underreporting/asymptomatic cases mean true incidence is higher, so conclusions must acknowledge this bias.

Front: Apply CER to an outbreak: what would the claim, evidence, and reasoning be?
Back: Claim = the likely source/agent; Evidence = line-list/epi-curve data and lab results; Reasoning = why those data point to that source.
Why: Scaffolds the outbreak report.

Front: A prompt asks you to recommend a public-health intervention and justify it. What must you include?
Back: A specific intervention (claim), the surveillance/outbreak evidence supporting it, and reasoning for why it should work.

Front: A prompt says 'evaluate the surge plan.' How does 'evaluate' differ from 'describe'?
Back: 'Describe' states what the plan is; 'evaluate' judges its strengths/weaknesses against criteria and supports the judgment with evidence.

Front: How does breaking the chain of infection connect infection control (HPSD) to disease prevention (BRE)?
Back: Each handling practice (hand hygiene, PPE, disinfection) targets a specific link, so safe technique is the applied mechanism behind preventing spread—linking both exam domains.
Why: Connects the two 072110 domains.

Front: How does the epi curve build on Unit 1's graphing skills?
Back: It is a specialized histogram; the same rules (labeled axes, reading shape/trend) apply, now used to infer transmission mode.
Why: Bridges Unit 1 data skills to epidemiology.

Front: Why is dose calculation both a math skill (BRE) and a handling-safety issue (HPSD)?
Back: The calculation must be correct (data/reasoning) AND the medication prepared, measured, and administered safely (handling)—an error in either harms the patient.

The chain of infection: agent, reservoir, portal of exit, mode of transmission, portal of entry, and a susceptible host.

Q: [...] counts NEW cases over a period, while [...] counts ALL existing cases at one time.
A: Incidence; prevalence

The four pharmacokinetic phases (ADME) are absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion.

Q: Don PPE in the order gown, mask, [...], gloves; doff in the order [...], goggles, gown, [...].
A: goggles; gloves; mask

Q: [...] separates people who are sick, while [...] separates people who were exposed but are not yet known to be sick.
A: Isolation; quarantine

Q: Surge capacity expands the three S's: [...], [...], and [...].
A: staff; space; supplies

Q: A weight-based dose of 5 mg/kg for a 20 kg child equals [...] mg; from a 40 mg/mL stock that is [...] mL.
A: 100; 2.5

Front: What is the engineering design process (EDP)?
Back: An iterative, evidence-based sequence for solving problems: define the problem, research, brainstorm, design, prototype, test, evaluate, and improve.
Why: Running the EDP is the marquee 4.1 skill.

Front: Why is the engineering design process described as iterative rather than linear?
Back: Test results feed back into redesign, so designers cycle through build-test-improve until the solution meets criteria.

Front: How does the engineering design process differ from the scientific method?
Back: The scientific method seeks to answer a question/explain nature; the engineering design process seeks to create a solution that meets defined needs and constraints.

Front: What are design criteria?
Back: The requirements a successful solution must meet (the goals/specifications it is judged against).

Front: What are design constraints?
Back: The limits or restrictions on a design (e.g., budget, materials, size, time, safety, regulations).

Front: Criteria vs constraints?
Back: Criteria are what the design should achieve (goals); constraints are the limits it must work within.

Front: 'The device must cost under $50 and weigh under 200 g.' Which is a criterion and which is a constraint?
Back: Both are constraints (limits); a criterion would be a performance goal such as 'detect glucose within 5 seconds.'

Front: What is a prototype?
Back: An early, testable model of a design built to evaluate and refine it before final production.

Front: Why build a low-fidelity prototype before a finished device?
Back: To test key ideas quickly and cheaply, catching design flaws early before investing in a final build.

Front: What is CAD (computer-aided design)?
Back: Software used to create precise 2D/3D digital models of a design, often as a step toward fabrication (e.g., 3D printing).
Why: CAD is explicit 4.1 content.

Front: What is one advantage of CAD over a hand sketch for a medical device?
Back: It gives precise, measurable, modifiable models that can be tested or sent directly to manufacturing/3D printing.

Front: What is a test plan?
Back: A documented procedure specifying what will be tested, how (variables, controls), what data will be collected, and the success criteria.
Why: Writing a test plan is a marquee 4.1 skill; pure BRE.

Front: Why must a test plan define the dependent variable and how it is measured?
Back: So the device's performance is measured objectively and consistently against the success criteria.

Front: Why should a prototype test include controlled variables?
Back: So that performance differences are attributable to the design, not to inconsistent test conditions.
Why: Experimental-design transfer (BRE ~69%).

Front: Functional test vs usability test of a device?
Back: A functional test checks whether the device works as specified; a usability test checks whether intended users can operate it effectively.

Front: What does it mean to iterate a design from data?
Back: To use test results as evidence to make specific, targeted improvements, then re-test.
Why: Iterating from data is an explicit 4.1 skill.

Front: A prototype fails a strength test. What is the data-driven next step?
Back: Analyze where/why it failed, change the relevant design feature, and re-test that change—rather than redesigning blindly.

Front: Is a 'failed' prototype test a wasted result?
Back: No—a failure is informative data that guides the next design improvement; iteration depends on it.

Front: Why is defining the problem (and stakeholder needs) the critical first EDP step?
Back: A clear, accurate problem definition ensures the criteria/constraints—and therefore the solution—address the real need.

Front: What is a design brief?
Back: A short document that states the problem, the criteria and constraints, and the goal of a design project.

Front: Why generate multiple design concepts before choosing one?
Back: To avoid fixating on the first idea and to compare options against the criteria, increasing the chance of a better solution.

Front: What is a decision matrix (Pugh chart) used for?
Back: To objectively compare design options by scoring each against weighted criteria.

Front: Why weight criteria in a decision matrix?
Back: Because some criteria matter more than others; weighting reflects priorities so the chosen design fits the real needs.

Front: Low-fidelity vs high-fidelity prototype?
Back: Low-fidelity is a rough, quick model to test concepts; high-fidelity closely resembles the final product for detailed testing.

Front: Name one fabrication method a CAD model can drive.
Back: 3D printing (additive manufacturing); also CNC machining or laser cutting.

Front: What is a success criterion in a test plan?
Back: A pre-defined measurable threshold the device must meet to be judged successful (e.g., 'lasts >=100 cycles').

Front: Why define the test procedure in detail before building?
Back: So the test is repeatable and the data fairly reflect the design rather than inconsistent methods.

Front: Why change only one design feature at a time between test cycles when possible?
Back: So you can tell which change caused any performance difference—the same logic as isolating a variable.

Front: Why must a medical-device designer consider safety and unintended harm?
Back: The device acts on patients; ethical design weighs benefits against risks and prevents foreseeable harm.

Front: Is the 'best-looking' prototype necessarily the best design?
Back: No—designs are judged against the criteria and test data, not appearance.

Front: Why keep a detailed engineering notebook/design log throughout a project?
Back: It records decisions, test data, and changes for reproducibility, accountability, and IP protection.

Front: How can a tight budget constraint shape material and process choices?
Back: It pushes the designer toward cheaper materials and simpler fabrication that still meet the criteria.

Front: What makes an innovation pitch 'data-backed'?
Back: It supports each claim about the device with specific test data and reasoning, not just assertions.
Why: Pitching a data-backed innovation is the marquee 4.2-4.3 skill.

Front: Why include your test data and methods in a pitch rather than just the conclusion?
Back: So the audience can judge the evidence's validity and trust the claim; transparency supports credibility.

Front: How should feedback or new test data change an innovation?
Back: It should drive specific, justified revisions to the design—the same evidence-to-action logic as scientific iteration.
Why: Revising from evidence is an explicit skill.

Front: What is a limitation of a study or prototype?
Back: A factor that restricts the strength, scope, or generalizability of the results (e.g., small sample, single test condition).
Why: Stating limitations/next steps is an explicit 4.2-4.3 skill.

Front: A prompt asks for the limitations of your prototype test. What makes a strong answer?
Back: Specific limitations (e.g., few trials, one user type) plus how each could bias results and how to address them next.

Front: What belongs in a 'next steps' section after a prototype test?
Back: Specific, evidence-justified follow-up actions: changes to test, additional trials, or new conditions to evaluate.

Front: What is a therapeutic (therapeutic intervention)?
Back: A treatment intended to cure, manage, or relieve a disease or condition (drug, device, procedure, or therapy).
Why: Therapeutics is explicit 4.2-4.3 content.

Front: Treatment vs cure vs prevention?
Back: Prevention stops disease before it starts; treatment manages or reduces an existing disease; a cure eliminates it.

Front: Why must a new therapeutic show both efficacy and safety before use?
Back: Efficacy proves it works and safety proves benefits outweigh harms; both are required evidence for approval.

Front: What is the purpose of a clinical trial?
Back: To test a therapeutic's safety and efficacy in people under controlled conditions before broad use.

Front: Why are controlled, randomized, blinded trials the strongest evidence for a therapeutic?
Back: Randomization and blinding reduce bias, and a control group isolates the treatment's true effect.
Why: Experimental-design reasoning (BRE).

Front: What is GIS (geographic information system) / a story map?
Back: A tool that links data to maps to visualize spatial patterns and communicate findings geographically.
Why: Story map/GIS is explicit 4.2-4.3 content.

Front: How could a story map strengthen a public-health innovation pitch?
Back: It visualizes where the problem and the solution's impact occur, making spatial evidence clear to the audience.

Front: Why tailor an innovation pitch to its audience (clinicians vs investors vs patients)?
Back: Different audiences value different evidence; matching content to their needs makes the message persuasive and usable.
Why: Usability/communication transfer.

Front: Compare a drug, a device, and a procedure as types of therapeutic interventions.
Back: A drug is a chemical that acts in the body; a device is a physical tool/implant; a procedure is an action performed on the patient. All aim to treat disease.

Front: Why do clinical trials proceed in phases?
Back: Early phases test safety in small groups; later phases test efficacy and monitor side effects in larger groups before approval.

Front: A pitch claims a device 'works great' but shows no data. What is the weakness?
Back: The claim is unsupported; without evidence the audience can't judge its validity.

Front: Feedback says users found a control confusing. What evidence-based revision follows?
Back: Redesign that control for clarity and re-test usability with users to confirm the fix.

Front: Which U.S. agency reviews and approves new medical devices and drugs for safety and efficacy?
Back: The FDA (Food and Drug Administration).

Front: What is a patent, in the context of a medical innovation?
Back: A legal protection giving an inventor exclusive rights to make/use/sell an invention for a limited time.

Front: What kind of data is best displayed with a GIS map rather than a bar graph?
Back: Spatial/location data (e.g., where cases or resources are distributed geographically).

Front: Why does acknowledging limitations strengthen rather than weaken a pitch?
Back: It shows scientific honesty and that conclusions are appropriately scoped, building credibility.

Front: Why is a personalized/targeted therapeutic often more effective than a one-size-fits-all drug?
Back: It matches the treatment to the patient's specific biology (e.g., genetics), improving efficacy and reducing side effects.

Front: Why might a prototype that works in the lab still fail when scaled to production?
Back: Manufacturing variability, cost, and real-world conditions can differ from the controlled prototype test—requiring further iteration.

Front: What PPE is needed when 3D printing, cutting, or sanding a prototype?
Back: Eye protection always; plus gloves, dust mask/respirator, and adequate ventilation depending on the material and process.
Why: HPSD is ~31% of 072110.

Front: Why is ventilation important when 3D printing certain plastics or using solvents?
Back: Heated plastics and solvents can release fumes/ultrafine particles; ventilation removes them to protect the user.

Front: Before using an adhesive or solvent on a prototype, what should you check and why?
Back: The SDS, for hazards, required PPE/ventilation, safe handling, and disposal of that chemical.

Front: How should chemical materials (resins, solvents) be stored in a build lab?
Back: In labeled, closed containers, away from incompatible chemicals and ignition sources, per their SDS.

Front: How should leftover resin, solvents, or chemical waste from prototyping be disposed of?
Back: As hazardous waste per the SDS/facility protocol—never poured down the drain or put in regular trash.

Front: How are sharp prototype materials (blades, cut metal/plastic) disposed of?
Back: In a dedicated puncture-resistant/broken-materials container, never loose in regular trash.

Front: What is biocompatibility, and why does it matter for a medical device?
Back: A material's ability to function in the body without causing harm (toxicity, immune reaction); a device material must be biocompatible.
Why: Material-safety reasoning for medical builds (HPSD).

Front: Why must a prototype device that contacts a patient be sterilized, and how might it be?
Back: To prevent infection; methods include autoclaving (steam), or for heat-sensitive items, chemical or other low-temperature sterilization.

Front: Why is choosing a material that can withstand sterilization a design constraint, not an afterthought?
Back: If the material degrades during sterilization, the device can't be safely reused/used, so it must be planned into the design.
Why: Links handling to design (BRE).

Front: Why must moving machinery (printers, saws) have guards and require tied-back hair/no loose clothing?
Back: To prevent entanglement and injury from moving parts during fabrication.

Front: What are the first steps if a solvent spills during prototyping?
Back: Alert others, consult the SDS, use proper PPE, ventilate, contain/absorb with the right material, and dispose of it as hazardous waste.

Front: Why store light- or heat-sensitive prototype reagents (e.g., UV resin) per their conditions?
Back: Exposure can cure/degrade them prematurely, wasting material and creating handling hazards.

Front: Why label every prototype material container and waste container?
Back: To prevent mix-ups, unsafe combinations, and improper disposal, and to keep handling traceable.

Front: What is a job/process safety check before fabricating a prototype?
Back: Reviewing the procedure, materials' SDS, required PPE, and disposal plan before starting, to prevent injury and contamination.

Front: What does the GHS pictogram of a flame warn about, and how does it affect storage?
Back: A flammability hazard; such materials must be stored away from heat/ignition sources and oxidizers.

Front: Why can using the wrong adhesive or coating make a medical prototype unsafe?
Back: A non-biocompatible or toxic material can harm the patient or fail in the body, so material handling choices have safety consequences.

Front: Autoclave (steam) vs chemical sterilization—when is each used?
Back: Autoclaving for heat-stable items; chemical/low-temperature methods for heat-sensitive materials that steam would damage.

Front: How does disposing of chemical waste differ from disposing of sharp/solid prototype waste?
Back: Chemical waste goes to hazardous-waste streams per SDS; sharps/solids go to puncture-resistant containers—each route prevents a different hazard.

Front: Why keep an up-to-date inventory of lab chemicals and materials?
Back: To avoid expired/incompatible stock, ensure correct storage, and support safe handling and disposal planning.

Front: Why is open-toed footwear prohibited in a fabrication/build lab?
Back: To protect feet from dropped tools, sharp materials, and chemical spills.

Front: Why decontaminate and clean a workspace and tools after prototyping?
Back: To remove residual chemicals/biological material, preventing cross-contamination and exposure for the next user.

Front: Why follow the manufacturer's handling instructions for a 3D-printer filament or resin?
Back: They specify safe temperatures, ventilation, and storage that prevent fumes, degradation, and exposure.

Front: Why is pouring solvent or resin waste down the drain both unsafe and often illegal?
Back: It can damage plumbing, harm workers, and pollute water; regulations require hazardous-waste disposal.

Front: Why run multiple trials of a prototype test instead of one?
Back: Replication reduces the effect of random variation, giving more reliable performance data.
Why: Experimental-design ~69% of exam.

Front: How does averaging across trials improve a device's reported performance value?
Back: It smooths out random error, giving a more representative central value than any single trial.

Front: Prototype A averages 9.8 with small spread; B averages 10.0 with large spread. Which is more reliable, and why?
Back: A—similar mean but much smaller variability means more consistent, dependable performance.
Why: Precision/reliability reasoning (BRE).

Front: Which variable goes on the x- vs y-axis when graphing a device test (e.g., dose vs response)?
Back: The independent variable (what you set, e.g., dose) on the x-axis; the measured response on the y-axis.

Front: Why should a prototype's test data be compared against the success criteria, not just reported?
Back: Meeting (or missing) the predefined criteria is what determines whether the design succeeds and what to iterate.

Front: A device was tested only on one user under ideal conditions. What is the main limitation of that data?
Back: It may not generalize; more users and realistic conditions are needed before claiming the device works broadly.
Why: Validity/generalizability (BRE).

Front: How do you calculate percent improvement between two prototype versions (e.g., 80 to 100 units)?
Back: (new - old) / old x 100% = (100-80)/80 = 25% improvement.

Front: A test produces one value far from all the others. What should you do before reporting?
Back: Investigate whether it's a real result or an error, report it, and justify any handling rather than deleting it silently.

Front: In a device test, what is the independent vs dependent variable?
Back: Independent = the design feature/setting you change; dependent = the performance you measure in response.

Front: What three elements must a prototype test graph include?
Back: A descriptive title and labeled axes with units (plus a legend if multiple series).

Front: Apply CER to an innovation result: what are the claim, evidence, and reasoning?
Back: Claim = the design meets (or fails) a criterion; Evidence = the test data; Reasoning = why the data show the criterion was met.
Why: Scaffolds the final innovation pitch.

Front: A prompt says 'use your data to justify a design change.' What must your answer contain?
Back: The specific data showing the problem, the proposed change, and reasoning for why the change should fix it.

Front: How does 'recommend' differ from 'describe' on an engineering prompt?
Back: 'Describe' explains what something is; 'recommend' makes a justified choice/action supported by evidence.

Front: How does the engineering design process reuse the experimental-design skills from Units 1-3?
Back: A test plan defines variables, controls, and data collection—the same experimental-design logic, now applied to evaluating a device.
Why: Connects EDP to the BRE backbone (~69% of exam).

Front: Why is 'iterate from data' the engineering version of CER/evidence-based reasoning?
Back: Both require linking specific evidence to a justified action/conclusion; iteration acts on the reasoning by redesigning.

Front: How does prototyping-lab handling (HPSD) connect to building a safe medical device?
Back: Safe material handling, biocompatible material choice, sterilization, and proper disposal are required for the device to be safe to make and use—linking both 072110 domains.
Why: Connects the two exam domains.

Q: Design [...] are the goals a solution must achieve, while [...] are the limits (budget, materials, time) it must work within.
A: criteria; constraints

Q: The engineering design process is [...]: test results feed back into redesign through a [...]-[...]-improve cycle.
A: iterative; build; test

Q: A [...] is an early testable model; [...] software creates precise digital models that can be sent to a [...].
A: prototype; CAD; 3D printer

Q: A test plan defines what is tested, the [...] and [...] variables, the [...] variables, and the success criteria.
A: independent; dependent; controlled

Q: Before use, a therapeutic must demonstrate both [...] (it works) and [...] (benefits outweigh harms), tested in [...].
A: efficacy; safety; clinical trials

Q: A strong innovation pitch is [...], states the design's [...], and proposes evidence-justified [...].
A: data-backed; limitations; next steps

Q: Before fabricating, check each material's [...], wear the right [...], and dispose of chemical waste as [...] waste, never down the drain.
A: SDS; PPE; hazardous